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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 341-350

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 341 – (Topic 3)

An IPv6 network has different MTUs on different segments, if the network is experiencing reliability issues, which option is the most likely reason?

  1. ICMPv6 is filtered.

  2. The Do Not Fragment bit is marked.

  3. HSRPv6 is configured incorrectly.

  4. The MTU size is greater than 1470 bytes.

Answer: B

Question No: 342 – (Topic 3)

Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?

  1. UDP Jitter for VoIP

  2. ICMP Path Echo

  3. ICMP Echo

  4. UDP Jitter

Answer: A

Question No: 343 – (Topic 3)

Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global synchronization?

  1. Tail drop

  2. Random early detection

  3. Weighted random early detection

  4. Weighted fair queuing

Answer: A

Question No: 344 – (Topic 3)

What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow?(3)

  1. Layer 3 protocol type

  2. Type of service

  3. Source MAC address

  4. Canonical Format identifier

  5. Input logical interface

  6. Cyclic Redundancy Check

Answer: A,B,E

Question No: 345 – (Topic 3)

What are three valid HSRP states? (Choose three)

  1. listen

  2. learning

  3. full

  4. established

  5. speak

  6. IN IT

Answer: A,E,F

Question No: 346 – (Topic 3)

How can you reduce latency on a VoIP network?

  1. Set the IP SLA timeout to 1000 milliseconds

  2. Implement fast retransmission

  3. Configure an SLA to collect information on packet loss

  4. Implement low-latency queuing

  5. Implement a congestion-avoidance algorithm

Answer: D

Question No: 347 – (Topic 3)

Refer to the exhibit.Which configuration must you apply to a router so that it can generate a log message in the given format?

  1. service sequence-numbers

    B service timestamps log datetime

  2. service timestamps log uptime

  3. service alignment logging

Answer: C

Question No: 348 – (Topic 3)

What technology allows a PE router to exchange VPNv4 routes with other PE routers?

  1. MPLSL3VPN B MPLSL2VPN

  2. VPLS

  3. Frame Relay to ATM AAL5 Interworking

Answer: A

Question No: 349 – (Topic 3)

Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three)

  1. IPv6 NA

  2. NHRP

  3. HSRP

  4. DVMRP

  5. GLBP

  6. IPv6 RA

Answer: C,E,F

Question No: 350 – (Topic 3)

Which option describes how the IP address is assigned when you configure a Layer 3 EtherChannel interface?

  1. You must assign the IP address to the tunnel interface.

  2. The last IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically.

  3. You must assign the IP address to a port channel logical interface.

  4. The first IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically.

Answer: C

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 331-340

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 331 – (Topic 2)

What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the summary disappears?

  1. Regardless of the metric of the component route ,the metric of the summary is unchanged in order to keep stability

  2. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary metric is retained for stability /

  3. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the summary changes to the next-best composite metric

  4. If the component route previously dis not have the best composite metric, the summary metric is updated and updates are sent to peers

Answer: A

Question No: 332 – (Topic 2)

what is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of a port ?

  1. the lowest MAC address on the switch

  2. the higest MAC address on the switch

  3. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU

  4. the same as the MAC address in the brigdge ID

Answer: C

Question No: 333 – (Topic 2)

What is the function of the command ip pim autorp listener?

  1. It allows the mapping agents to accept autorp information from the PIM rendezvous point.

  2. It allows a BSR to accept autorp information and translate it into BSR messages.

  3. It allows the routers to flood the atuorp information in a sparse-mode-only network.

  4. It allows a border PIM spare-mode router to accept autorp information from another

autonomous system.

Answer: C

Topic 3, Pool C

Question No: 334 – (Topic 3)

Which two statements about IP source guard are true?(Choose two.)

  1. It must be applied to EtherChannel port members

  2. It is available only on L2 ports.

  3. It is supported in software only.

  4. It is not supported on private VLANS.

  5. It blocks DHCP packets

Answer: B,D

Question No: 335 – (Topic 3)

Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?

  1. They determine whether a destination is reachable

  2. They are transmitted unreliably

  3. They are transmitted via broadcast

  4. They are sent in response to queries

Answer: B

Question No: 336 DRAG DROP – (Topic 3)

Answer:

Question No: 337 – (Topic 3)

What command can you enter to enable client autoconfiguration over an ISATAP tunnel?

  1. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

  2. no ipv6 nd ra suppress

  3. ipv6 nd ra suppress

  4. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6rd

Answer: B

Question No: 338 – (Topic 3)

Which feature can protect against broadcast DoS attacks?

  1. storm control

  2. DHCP snooping

  3. DAI

  4. IP Source Guard

Answer: A

Question No: 339 – (Topic 3)

Which statement about Cisco StackWise technology is true?

  1. Every switch in a stack has its own independent and uncoordinated configuration file

  2. All switches in a stack share configuration and routing information to behave as a single unit

  3. Removing switches can affect stack performance

  4. Only the master switch acts as a forwarding processor

Answer: A

Question No: 340 – (Topic 3)

Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server database, how will R1 respond?

  1. It will attempt to authenticate the user against the local database

  2. It will attempt to contact the TACACS server

  3. It will prompt the user to enter a new username

  4. It will deny the user access

Answer: B

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 321-330

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 321 – (Topic 2)

Which three modes are valid for forming an EtherChannel between the ports of two switches? {Choose three)

  1. passive/passive

  2. active/active

  3. active/passive

  4. desirable/on

  5. auto/auto

  6. auto/desirable

Answer: B,C,F

Question No: 322 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two)

  1. It works by appending the public IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.

  2. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 51.

  3. It works by appending the private IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.

  4. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 41.

Answer: A,D

Question No: 323 – (Topic 2)

Which two EtherChannel modes can create an LACP EtherChannel?(Choose two)

  1. on

  2. active

  3. passive

  4. auto

  5. desirable

Answer: B,C

Question No: 324 – (Topic 2)

Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. If a console port is configured as shown, which response is displayed when you connect to the console port?

  1. the message quot;Authorized users onlyquot;

  2. the username prompt

  3. a blinking cursor.

  4. three username name prompts followed by a timeout message.

  5. the message quot;Connection refused.quot;

Answer: C

Question No: 325 – (Topic 2)

Which option is can example Qf SaaS?

  1. Google Apps

  2. Amazon AWs

  3. Google App Engine

  4. Microsoft Azure

Answer: A

Question No: 326 – (Topic 2)

Which is the maximum number of classes that MQC can support in a single policy map ?

A. 512

B. 256

C. 128

D. 64

Answer: B

Question No: 327 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this topology are true? (Choose two)

  1. Destination 192.168.23.0/24 is unable to use interface Fa0/1 as the LFA.

  2. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is the primary path to destination 192.168.23.0/24.

  3. The FastEthernet 0/0 and FastEthernet 0/1 interfaces are used as LFA for destination 192.168.23.0/24

  4. Only interface FastEthernet 0/1 are used as the LFA for destination 192.168.23.0/24.

  5. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is the primary path to destination 192.168.23.0/24.

  6. Only FastEthernet 0/0 is used as the LFA to destination 192.168.23.0/24.

Answer: A,E

Question No: 328 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about WAN Ethernet Services is true?

  1. UNIs can perform service multiplexing and all-in-one bundling

  2. Point-to-point processing and encapsulation are performed on the customer network.

  3. Ethernet multipoint service function as a multipoint-to-multipoint VLAN-based connection

  4. Rate-limiting can be configured per EVC.

Answer: D

Question No: 329 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

What type of IS-IS is configured on R1?

  1. VRF-aware IS-IS

  2. ISIS version 2

  3. single-topology IS-IS

  4. mufti-process IS-IS

Answer: C

Question No: 330 – (Topic 2)

Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two)

  1. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic

  2. PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network.

  3. PIM-DM supports only shared trees.

  4. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

  5. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree.

Answer: B,E

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 311-320

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 311 – (Topic 2)

Exhibit:

  1. The PPP multilink protocol header is omitted on delay-sensitive packets.

  2. The maximum number of fragments is 1.

  3. Small real-time packets are multilink-encapsulated.

  4. A transmit queue is provided for smaller packets

Answer: A,D

Question No: 312 – (Topic 2)

Which command sets the maximum segment size for a TCP packet initiated from a router?

  1. ip tcp window-size

  2. ip tcp mss

  3. ip mtu

  4. ip tcp adjust-mss

Answer: B

Question No: 313 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose three)

  1. The virtual circuit identifier is 4006 and the virtual circuit is down.

  2. This circuit is using MPLS VC type 4.

  3. The local label for the circuit is 1611.

  4. The virtual circuit identifier is 1611 and the virtual circuit is down.

  5. The targeted LDP session to the remote peer is up.

  6. The local label for the circuit is 4006.

Answer: D,E,F

Question No: 314 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two)

  1. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernetO/0

  2. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDP port 49152

  3. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernetO/0

  4. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data.

  5. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port 49152.

Answer: B,C

Question No: 315 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

  1. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.

  2. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.

  3. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.

  4. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.

  5. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system

Answer: B,C

Question No: 316 – (Topic 2)

Which command can you enter to disable logging for terminal lines?

  1. no logging trop

  2. no logging monitor

  3. no logging buffer

  4. no logging console

  5. no logging count

Answer: B

Question No: 317 – (Topic 2)

Refer to exhibit. R1, R2, and R3 are in different statellite offices of the same organization. A multiast vido source is located behind R1. R3 frequently receives video streams interded for R2. These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3. Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

  1. Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary 10 stop receiving unwanted traffic

  2. Configure IGMP snooping on R1 R 2 and R3

  3. Place a PIM filter 贸n the switches and interfaces that connect 10 R1R2 and R3

  4. Enable IGMP snooping On all switches that contect to R1 R2 and R3

  5. Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only

Answer: D

Question No: 318 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can you draw from this command and its output?(choose two)

  1. Rl0 has a missing label binding (or 192.168.40.171/32

  2. The MPLS ping failed

  3. 192.168.40.171/32 exists in the global routing table

  4. A valid LSP exists and it matches the corresponding MPLS FEC

  5. The MPLS ping was successful

  6. R10 has a valid lablel binding for 192.168.40.171/32

Answer: A,B

Question No: 319 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 have been configured as BGP neighbors, but their session is stuck in active. Which action can you take that will enable a session to be established?

  1. Enable synchronization on R1 R2

  2. Issue the neighbor 10.1.12 .2 activate command on R#39;1

  3. Configure 10.1.12.1 as the BGP router 10 on R1

  4. Configure a neighbor relation ship with the Loopback0 address of R1 on R2

Answer: D

Question No: 320 – (Topic 2)

Which option describes show a network administrator prevents possible routing loops for VLSM subnets that are missing from the routing table?

  1. Create a route for the subnet to the null interface and then redistribute the static route into the routing process.

  2. Create a loopback interface with the correct subnet and then redistribute the connected interface to the routing table

  3. Create a loopback interface with the correct subnet and the routing protocol automatically injects it into its routing process

  4. Create a route for the subnet to the null interface and the routing protocol automatically injects it into its routing process.

Answer: A

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 301-310

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 301 – (Topic 2)

Which option descripbes a difference between Ansible and Puppet?

  1. Ansible is client-server based and Puppet is not

  2. Ansible requires an agent and Puppet does not

  3. Ansible is Python based and Puppet is Ruby based

  4. Ansible automates repetitive tasks and Puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands

Answer: C

Question No: 302 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each IPv6 migration method from the left onto the matching description on the right. Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 303 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this capture true? (Choose two)

  1. It is set to run for five minutes

  2. It is set to use the default buffer type

  3. It captures data only until the buffer is full

  4. It is set to run for a period of 00:03:26

  5. It continues to captures to capture data after the buffer is full

Answer: A,E

Question No: 304 – (Topic 2)

Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the DSCP value that egresses SW2 toward R2?

  1. 0

  2. 2

  3. 8

  4. 10

  5. 16

Answer: A

Question No: 305 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about IS-IS are true? {Choose two)

  1. The default hello interval is 10 seconds and the default hold timer is 30 seconds.

  2. Both IS-IS routers need to have the same capabilities in the hello packet in order to form neighbors.

  3. The hello interval can be changed on a per-interface basis with the command ISIS hello- multiplier.

  4. Both routers need to have the same hello intervals and hello timers in order to form IS- IS neighbors.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 306 – (Topic 2)

You are configuring Wireshark on a Cisco Catalyst 4500E Switch a Supervisor 8. Which three action can you take to prevent the capture from overloading the CPU? {Choose three)

  1. Use an in-line filter.

  2. Reconfigure the buffers to accommodate the additional traffic.

  3. Attach the specific ports that are part of the data path.

  4. Configure a policy a policy map, class map, and an access list to express the match conditions.

  5. Use an appropriate ACL

  6. Add memory to the Supervisor.

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 307 – (Topic 2)

An IP SLA fails to generate statistics. How can you fix the problem?

  1. Add the verify-data command to the router configuration

  2. Reload the router configuration.

  3. Remove the ip sla schedule statement from the router configuration and re-enter it.

  4. Add the debug ip sla trace command to the router configuration.

  5. Add the debug ip sla error command to the router configuration.

Answer: A

Question No: 308 – (Topic 2)

On an MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.)

  1. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other PE routers.

  2. It typically exchanges iBGP routing updates with the CE device.

  3. It distributes labels and forwards labeled packets.

  4. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with CE devices.

  5. It forwards labeled packets between CE devices.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 309 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. This routes is advertising which routes via BGP?

  1. BGP routes that originated on RT1

  2. AJI routes

  3. all BGProutes from AS 65006

  4. BGP routes that originated from AS 65006 and BGP routes that originated on this router

  5. No routes

Answer: D

Question No: 310 – (Topic 2)

Which two options are pruposes of MSDP SA filtering?(Choose two)

  1. to improve the scalability of an MSDP multicast environment

  2. to reduce the number of multicast addresses that are distributed to other devices in the

    same multicast domain

  3. to allow all SA messages to be processed by MSDP peers

  4. to reduce the number of multicast addresses that are shared to MSDP peers

  5. to allow the filtering of IGMP messages between peers

  6. to allow the filtering of PIM messages between peers

Answer: A,D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 291-300

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 291 – (Topic 2)

Which two statement about BPDU guard are true ?

  1. BPDU guard can be used to prevent an invalid BPDU from propagating through the network.

  2. BPDU guard can be used to prevent an access port from participating in the spanning tree in the service provider environment.

  3. The global configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default shuts down interface that are in the PortFast-operational state when a BPDU is received on that port.

  4. BPDU guard can be used to protect the root port.

  5. The interface configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard enable shuts down only interface with PortFast enabled when a BPDU is received.

Answer: B,C

Question No: 292 – (Topic 2)

What is the EUI 64-bit address corresponding to MAC address 0032F4C57781?

A. FFFE0032F4C57781 B. 0032F4FFFEC57781 C. 0032F4C57781FFFE D. C57781FFFE0032F4

Answer: B

Question No: 293 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the Rlmulticastcast network environment is true?

  1. . RPF builds the topology using the unicast data for source address 10.1.108.10.

  2. A static mrouteis configured to point multicast traffic for 10.30.30.32 through Ethernet 1/0.

  3. RPF uses the OSPF 100 table for source address 10.1.108.10.

  4. The default mroute uses Tunnel 10 as the next hop for 10.1.108.10.

Answer: B

Question No: 294 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect on the network when you apply these configuration to RI and R2?

  1. Asymmetric routing occurs because the bandwidth and delay K value settings are mismatched.

  2. The interface bandwidth and delay settings adjust automatically to match the new metric settings

  3. The neighbor adjacency between R1 and R2 temporarily resets and then reestablishes itself.

  4. R1 and R2 fail to form a neighbor adjacency.

Answer: D

Question No: 295 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

The Main 1 and Branch 1 switches are connected directly over over an MPLS pseudowire, and both runn UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure, the pseudowire.

However the Branch 1 switch is unable to reach the Main 1 switch. Which two actions can you take to restore connectivity and problem from recurring? (Choose two)

  1. Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main 1 and Branch I Switchs.

  2. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch 1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.

  3. Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the Main I and Branch 1 switches.

  4. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on both the Branch 1 switch uplink to the B1 router and the Main 1 switch#39;s uplink to the M1 router

  5. Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.

  6. Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.

Answer: B,E

Question No: 296 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the PHB class on this?

  1. EF

  2. CS4

  3. none

  4. AF21

Answer: B

Question No: 297 – (Topic 2)

Which two OSPF network type require the use of a DR and BDR? {Choose two)

  1. non-broadcast networks

  2. point-to-point networks

  3. point-to-point non-broadcast networks

  4. broadcast networks

  5. point-to-multipoint networks

Answer: A,D

Question No: 298 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag each 0SPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right. Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 299 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?

  1. In a BIDIR-PIM network the RPF interface can be the interface that is used reach the PIM rendezvous or the interface that is used to reach the source.

  2. In a BIDIR-PIM network the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the source.

  3. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks

  4. In a BIDIR network the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point.

Answer: D

Question No: 300 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag each NTP command on the left to its effect on the right.

Answer:

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 281-290

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 281 – (Topic 2)

Which regular expression will match prefixes from the AS 200 that directly connected to our AS?

A. A$

B. A200)

C. _200$

D. A200_ E- _200_

Answer: D

Question No: 282 – (Topic 2)

Exhibit:

With BGP always-compare-med enabled, which BGP entry is installed in the RIB?

  1. Entry 1 because it was installed first (oldest) in the BGP table.

  2. Entry 1 because it has the best MED of the external routes.

  3. Entry 2 because it has the lowest router ID.

  4. Entry 3 because it has the lowest MED.

Answer: D

Question No: 283 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the OSPF state in 2WAY/DROTHER?

  1. There is a duplicate router ID

  2. This is the expected output when R1 is the DR.

  3. There is an MTU mismatch.

  4. This is expected output when the interface EthernetO/0 of RI is configured with OSPF Priority 0.

  5. There is an OSPF timer (hello/dead) mismatch.

Answer: D

Question No: 284 – (Topic 2)

For which two conditions is Cisco Express Forwarding recursion disables by default when the BGP Prefix independent Convergence functionality is enabled? (Choose two)

  1. next hops that are directly connected

  2. next hops learned with any mask shorter than /32

  3. next hops learned with a/32 mask

  4. next hops learned with a/24 mask

Answer: A,C

Question No: 285 – (Topic 2)

In a simple MPLS L3VPN. which two tasks are performed by a PE router?(Choose two)

  1. It establishes pseudowires with other PEs

  2. It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6 routes with CE devices

  3. It assigns labels to routes in individual VPNs…

  4. It forwards labeled packets to CE devices

  5. It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6 routes with oth.er PE routers

Answer: C,E

Question No: 286 – (Topic 2)

Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)

  1. area ID

  2. domain ID

  3. system ID

  4. NSAP selector

  5. MAC address

  6. IP address

Answer: A,C,D

Question No: 287 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two)

  1. All SNMP notification types are sent

  2. The SNMP trap receiver is congigured

  3. SNMPv3 is the default version

  4. The SNMP agent is enabled.

  5. SNMPv1 is the default version.

Answer: A,E

Question No: 288 – (Topic 2)

Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (choose three)

  1. authentication

  2. MIB persistence

  3. message integrity

  4. authorization

  5. encryption

  6. accounting

Answer: A,C,E

Question No: 289 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each step in the uRPF packet-forwarding process from the left into of operations on the right. Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 290 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about Auto-RP is true ?

  1. All interface s must be configured in sparse modE.

  2. All interfaces must be configured in sparse-dense mode.

  3. All interfaces must be configured in dense modE.

  4. An RP that it tied to a loopback address must be configured.

Answer: D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 271-280

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 271 – (Topic 2)

Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three)

  1. metric

  2. authentication type

  3. link state

  4. IP subnet

  5. externaI route tag

  6. subnet mask

Answer: A,D,F

Question No: 272 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about PPP PAP are true?(Choose two)

  1. It requires two-way authentication

  2. It can protect against playback attacks

  3. It is supported only on synchronous interfaces

  4. It is vulnerable to trial-and-error attacks

  5. Login attempts are controlled by the remote node

Answer: A,E

Question No: 273 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true?(Choose two.)

  1. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.

  2. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.

  3. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.

  4. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.

  5. A prefix can support only one community attribute.

Answer: B,D

Question No: 274 – (Topic 2)

How does MSTP maintain compatibility with RSTP?

  1. The system ID of an RSTP BPDU is padded with extra bytes to match the format of an MSTP BPDU.

  2. MSTP sends all spanning-tree information in one BPDU

  3. RSTP encodes region information from an MSTP BPDU into a single instance.

  4. MSTP supports five port states in the same way as RSTP.

  5. RSTP implements a TTL that is compatible with the MSTP max age timer.

Answer: A

Question No: 275 – (Topic 2)

Which IPv6 tunneling type establishes a permanent link between IPv6 domains over IPv4?

  1. 6to4 tunneling

  2. ISATAP tunneling

  3. IPv4-compatible tunneling

  4. manual tunneling

Answer: D

Question No: 276 – (Topic 2)

Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address. Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

  1. NetFlow can export flows only to.a external flow collector

  2. ip flow-top-talkers

  3. ip accounting

  4. show ip cache flow

Answer: B

Question No: 277 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit?

  1. EEP

  2. Python

  3. Bash script

  4. NETCONF

  5. RESET

Answer: B

Question No: 278 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit .Which two statements about the output are true?(Choose two)

  1. BFD on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its pe r

  2. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP

  3. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP

  4. BFD last failed 476 ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 /

  5. BFD is active for BGP on RT1

Answer: D,E

Question No: 279 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each STP po role on the le to the matching statement on the right.

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 280 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? ( Choose two)

  1. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer

  2. In IPv4 fragmentation is permed by the source of the packet

  3. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer

  4. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity

  5. In IPv6routers perform fragmentation

  6. In IPv6hosts perform fragmentation

Answer: D,F

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 261-270

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 261 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit . What tag will be applied to the 172.16.130.0/24 route?

  1. 10

  2. 20

  3. 30

  4. 40

Answer: B

Question No: 262 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each multicast protocol from the left onto the matching description on the right.

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 263 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 264 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?

  1. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions

  2. APIC supports OpFlexas a Northbound protocol

  3. APIC does suppoort a Southbound REST API

  4. APIC uses an imperative model

Answer: B

Question No: 265 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Notice that debug ip bgp updates has been enables. What can you conclude from the debug output?

  1. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 established a new BGP session.

  2. This is result of clear ip bgp 10.1.2.3 in command.

  3. This is result of the clear ip bgp 10.1.3.4 out command.

  4. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 performed a graceful restart.

Answer: B

Question No: 266 – (Topic 2)

Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?

  1. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15

  2. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port

  3. Configure the activation-character command

  4. Configure an ACL

Answer: C

Question No: 267 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about a flat single-hub DMVPN with NHRP are true?(choose two)

  1. NHRP shortens the configuration 01the hub router

  2. NHRP dynamically provides informatlon about the spoke routers to the hub

  3. NHRP disables multicast

D The hub muter uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers

Answer: A,B

Question No: 268 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each IS-IS router type from the left onto the best matching OSPF router type on the right.

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 269 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a.Cisco switch is true?

  1. AII traffic is sent through four egress queues

  2. Port trust is enabled

  3. The Port CoS value is 0

  4. The CoS value of each tagged packet is modified

Answer: C

Question No: 270 – (Topic 2)

Which feature can you implement to reduce global synchronization?

  1. marking

  2. NBAR

  3. WRED

  4. policing

Answer: C

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 251-260

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 251 – (Topic 2)

Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose three)

  1. Solicit

  2. Renew

  3. Advertise

  4. DHCP Discover

  5. DHCPAck

  6. DHCP Offer

Answer: A,B,C

Question No: 252 – (Topic 2)

Refer to exhibit R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route. Which action can you take to correct the problem?

  1. Replace the summary .address command with the area-range command

  2. Configure a summary address under R1interfate GigabitEthernet0/0

  3. Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabREthernet1/0

  4. Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1

  5. Gonfigure ip ospf n茅twork broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1

Answer: A

Question No: 253 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit .

Which action can you take to prevent loops and suboptimal routing on this network?

  1. Configure the rfc2328compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only

  2. Configure the rfc2328compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF NX-OS routing process only

  3. Configure the ref1583compatibility command under the Cisco NX-OS OSPF routing process only

  4. Configure the ref1583compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only

  5. Configure the rfc2328compatibility command Cisco IOS and NX-OS OSPF routing processes

  6. Configure the rfc2328compatibility command under the Cisco IOS and NX-OS OSPF routing

Answer: C

Question No: 254 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. Which twostatementsabout the device configuration are 1rue?

(Choose two)

  1. The device has control-plane protection enabled 8.The device implicitly allows Telnet connections

  2. The GigabitEthernet0/1 interface of the device allows incoming SSH and SNMP connections

  3. The device has management-plane protection enabled

  4. The device allows SSH connections to its loopback interface

Answer: C,D

Question No: 255 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about class maps are true? {Choose two)

  1. As many as eight DSCP values can be included in a match dscp statement.

  2. A policy map can be used to designate a protocol within a class map.

  3. The match class command can nest a class map with more than one match command is match-any.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 256 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and Drop to corresponding items

Answer:

Question No: 257 – (Topic 2)

For which r ason can two QSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the. Wvo-way state?

  1. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface.

  2. The two routers are configured with different priorities

  3. The intefface priority is set to zero on both routers.

  4. Both routers have th锚 same OSPF router 10.

Answer: C

Question No: 258 – (Topic 2)

Which two conditions must be before IS-IS Level1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose)

  1. The routers must share a common Autonomous 8ystem Number

  2. The routers must share a common process ID

  3. The routers must be in different areas

  4. The routers must share a common NETWORK SEGMENT

  5. The routers must be configured with the neighbor command

  6. The routers must be in same area

Answer: D,F

Question No: 259 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 260 – (Topic 2)

Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two)

  1. cluster list

  2. local preference

  3. AS path

  4. MED

  5. weight

Answer: A,D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 241-250

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 241 – (Topic 2)

How does EIGRP derive the metric for manual summary routes ?

  1. It uses the worst metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.

  2. It uses the best metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.

  3. It uses the best composite metric of any component route in the topology table

  4. It uses the worst composite metric of any component route in the topology table

Answer: C

Question No: 242 – (Topic 2)

You are implementing new addressing with EIGRP routing and must use secondary addresses which are missing from the routing table. Which action is the most efficient soJution to the problem?

  1. Disable split-horizon on the interfaces with secondary addresses. /

  2. Dlsable split-horizon inside the#39; EIGRp proc脽ss on the router with the secondary interfaceaddresses

  3. Add additional roulter interfaces and move the secondary addresses to the new interfaces

  4. Use a different routing protocol and redistribute the routes between EIGRP and the new protocol

Answer: A

Question No: 243 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag each statement about EIGRP neighbor peering on the left to the matching peering type on the right

Answer:

Question No: 244 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

If this network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF, and all routers are now running both protocols, which action must you perform to complete the migration?

  1. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 95

  2. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 95

  3. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 115

  4. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 115

Answer: D

Question No: 245 – (Topic 2)

Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the output are true? (Choose three.)

  1. Group 224.0.1.40 is a reserved address , and it should not be used for multicast user data transfer.

  2. One or more multicast groups are operating in PIM multicast user data transfer.

  3. Group 239.192.1.1 is reserved address, and it should not be used for multicast user data transfer.

  4. A multicast receiver has requested to join one or more of the multicast groups.

  5. This switch is currently receiving a multicast data stream that is being forwarded out VLAN 150.

  6. One or more of multicast data streams will be forwarded out to neighbor 10.85.20.20.

Answer: A,D,E

Question No: 246 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 247 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

If router R1 sends traffic marked with IP precedence 3 to R2#39;s Loopback 0 address, which class would the traffic match on R2#39;s Gi1/0 interface?

  1. CM-CLASS-3

  2. class-default

  3. CM-CLASS-2

  4. CM-CLASS-1

Answer: B

Question No: 248 – (Topic 2)

Refer to exhibit.

Which two possible network conditions can you infer from this configuration? (Choose two)

  1. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7

  2. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration

  3. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 mismatched.

  4. RI and R2 have established an NTP session

Answer: B,C

Question No: 249 – (Topic 2)

Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.)

  1. Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports.

  2. PAGP is supported on EVC ports.

  3. Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports.

  4. LACP is supported on EVC ports.

  5. Layer 2 multicast framing is supported.

  6. Bridge domain routing is required.

Answer: A,B,D

Question No: 250 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Select and Place:

Answer:

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 231-240

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 231 – (Topic 2)

Which two commands should you enter to enable IP Source Guard with source IP and MAC address filtering?(Choose two)

  1. ip verify source tracking

  2. swit莽hport port-security

  3. ip verify unicast source

  4. ip verify source

  5. ip verify source port-security

Answer: B,E

Question No: 232 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 233 – (Topic 2)

Which two options are EIGRP route authentication encryption modes? (Choose two)

  1. MD5

  2. HMAC-AES

  3. ESP-AES

  4. HMAC-SHA2-256bit

Answer: A,D

Question No: 234 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network?

  1. 6to4 tunnel

  2. NAT-PT

  3. ISATAP tunnel

  4. dual stack

Answer: D

Question No: 235 – (Topic 2)

which two actions can you take to allow the network#39;172.29224 .0124 to be reachable from peer 192.168.250.537 (Choose two)

  1. Modify the community list to match community 64513:64090 attached to 172.29.224.0124

  2. Configure soft reconfiguration to peering 192.168.250.53

  3. Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional routes/

  4. Configure additional address families1to peering 192.1682 .53.

  5. Modify the inbound route map 10 permit all additional routes

Answer: A,C

Question No: 236 – (Topic 2)

Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)

  1. low-latency queuing

  2. congestion-avoidance algorithm

  3. fast retransmission

  4. IP service level agreements

  5. fast start

  6. fast recovery

Answer: A,D

Question No: 237 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)

  1. It flows both the hub and the spokes to use dynamic IP addresses.

  2. It supports mufticast and QoS within tunnels.

  3. It provides a routable interface for terminating IPSec tunnels.

  4. It is a tunnel-less VPN technology.

  5. It is an open standard.

  6. It uses automatic IPSec triggering to build IPSec tunnels.

Answer: B,F

Question No: 238 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about Cisco StacWise technology is true?

  1. AII switches in a stack share configuration and routing informa镁on to behaves a single unit

  2. Removing switches can affect stack permance /

  3. Every switch in a stack has its own independent … configuration filewhich enables it to become the stack master if the previious master fails

  4. Only the master switch acts as a for Narding processor

Answer: C

Question No: 239 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?

  1. The registration request had the same flag set.

  2. Authentication was used for the mapping.

  3. R1 learned about the NHRP mapping from a registration request.

  4. Duplicate mapping in the NHRP cache is prevented.

Answer: C

Question No: 240 – (Topic 2)

Which three mode are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three)

  1. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)

  2. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)

  3. RMON mode (based on RMONv 1 and RMONv2 data)

  4. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)

  5. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)

  6. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)

Answer: D,E,F

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 221 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each step in the performance-monitoring configuration process on the left into the correct order on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 222 – (Topic 2)

What are the two BFD modes? quot;(Choose two)

  1. active

  2. asynchronous

  3. C. passive

  4. established

  5. demand

  6. synchronous

Answer: B,E

Question No: 223 – (Topic 2)

Refer to exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?

  1. The Reported distance for the Successor is 128256

  2. The metric installed into the route tabel is 4352

  3. The metric installed into the route table is 126256

  4. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600

Answer: A

Explanation: QUESTN 55

which two statements are true about an EVPL? (Choose two ) A.it does not allow for service multiplexing

B.It has a high degree of transparency

C.The EVPL service is also referred to as E-line

D.It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair 01UNls

Answer: CD

Question No: 224 – (Topic 2)

Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)

  1. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.

  2. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.

  3. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE

  4. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.

  5. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.

Answer: A,D

Question No: 225 – (Topic 2)

Which statement describes Cisco PfR link group?

  1. Link groups enable Cisco PfR Fast Reroute when NwtFlow is enabled on the external interfaces of the border routers.

  2. Link groups define a strict or loose hop-by-hop path preference.

  3. Link groups are required only when Cisco PfR is configured to load-balance all traffic.

  4. Link groups are enabled automatically when Cisco PfR is in Fast Reroute mode.

  5. Link groups set a preference for primary and fallback (backup) external exit interfaces.

Answer: E

Question No: 226 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

When you apply these configurations to R1 and R2. which two effects occur? (Choose two)

  1. The 172.16.1.1 network is reachable via OSPF on R1

  2. RI authenticates using the username Cisco

  3. C. R1 and R2 successfully authenticates using CHAP

  4. Authentication between R1 and R2 fails.

  5. R1 and R2 authentications using PAP

Answer: B,D

Question No: 227 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which additional configuration statement is required on R3 in order to allow multicast traffic sourced from 192.168.13.3 to flow along the shared-tree?

A. ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0

B. ip route 10.4.4.4 255.255255.255 Tunnel 0

C. ip mroute 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0

D. ip mroute 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0

Answer: C

Question No: 228 – (Topic 2)

What are the three variants of NTPv4? (Choose three.)

  1. client/server

  2. broadcast

  3. symmetric

  4. multicast

  5. asymmetric

  6. unicast

Answer: A,B,C

Question No: 229 – (Topic 2)

According to the networking best practices .which network device should be used for optimization and rate limiting?

  1. the provider core device

  2. the provider edge device

  3. the customer core device

  4. the coustomer edge device

Answer: D

Question No: 230 – (Topic 2)

Which IPv4 feature prevents multicast joins on a per-port basis?

  1. MLD filtering

  2. IGMP filtering

  3. IGMP snooping

  4. PIM snooping

Answer: B

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 211 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.If the default-information originate always command is configured on R4,what route type is assigned to the default route in RVs route table?

  1. O

  2. E2

  3. OIA

  4. E1

Answer: B

Question No: 212 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which effect of this configuration is true?

  1. Users can enter user EXEC mode without a user name using password cisco4

  2. Users in user EXEC mode can enter privileged EXEC mode without a user name or password.

  3. Users can enter privileged EXEC mode using user name ciscol and password cisco2

  4. Users in user EXEC mode can enter privileged EXEC mode without a user name using password

Answer: C

Question No: 213 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit,

Which prefixes will have their distance changed?

  1. All prefixes in the range 10.1.12.0 鈥?10.1.12.255 learned from peers matching access- list 10

  2. All prefixes matching access-list 10 learned from peers in the range 10.1.12.0 鈥?10.1.12.255

  3. All internal prefixes matching access-list 10 learned from peers in the range 10.1.12.0 鈥?10.1.12.255

  4. All internal prefixes in the range 10.1.12.0 鈥?10.1.12.255 learned from peers matching access-list

10

Answer: C

Question No: 214 – (Topic 2)

Where must the spanning-tree timers be configured if they are not using the default timers?

  1. Changing the default timers is not allowed

  2. They must be on any non-root bridge

  3. Timers must be modified manually in each switch

  4. They must be on the root bridge

Answer: D

Question No: 215 – (Topic 2)

Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

  1. Horizon

  2. Nova

  3. Neutron

  4. Keystone

Answer: D

Question No: 216 – (Topic 2)

Which statement is true when using a VLAN ID from the extended ULAN range (1006- 4094)?

  1. STP is disabled by default on extended-range VLANs.

  2. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can only be used as private VLANs.

  3. VLANs in the extended VLAN range cannot be pruned.

  4. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can be used with VTPV2 in either client or server mode.

Answer: C

Question No: 217 – (Topic 2)

Which two parameters does the Tunnel Mode Auto Selection feature select automatically? (Choose two)

  1. the tunneling protocol

  2. the transport protocol

  3. the ISAKMP profile

  4. the tunnel peer

  5. the transform-set

Answer: A,B

Question No: 218 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exh铆b铆t. Which statement correctly descr铆pt铆on how a router with this configuration treats packets if it does not know a path 172.16.12.5 and 192.168 3 2?

  1. it routes the packet based on the packet#39;s destinat铆on us铆ng the rout铆ng table

  2. It drop the packet 铆mmed铆ately

  3. It sends an ICMP source quench message

  4. it routes the packet Into a loop and drops it when the JTL reaches zero

Answer: A

Question No: 219 – (Topic 2)

Which three features does GETVPN support to improve deployment and scalability? (Choose three.)

  1. redundant IPsec tunnels between group members and the key server

  2. allowing traffic to be discarded until a group member registers successfully.

  3. GDOI protocol configuration between group members and the key server.

  4. local exceptions in the traffic classification ACL.

  5. redundant multicast replication streaming through the use of a bypass tunnel.

  6. configuration of multiple key servers to work cooperatively.

Answer: A,E,F

Question No: 220 – (Topic 2)

Which feature provides local database policy options that are similar to those ofTACACS-t- and RADIUS servers?

  1. authentication fallback

  2. reflexive ACLs

  3. AAA attributes

D. 802.1x

Answer: D

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 201 – (Topic 2)

Which feature can mitigate hung management sessions?

  1. Contr枚l Plane Policing

  2. the service tcp-keepalives-in and service tcp-keepalives-out commands

  3. the servic锚 tcp-small servers command

  4. vty line ACLs

Answer: B

Question No: 202 – (Topic 2)

Which DHCP message type 莽loes the DHCP Server send to a client to confirm its allocated IP address?

  1. DHCPACK

  2. DHCPOFFER

  3. DHCPDISCOVER

  4. DHCPREQUEST

Answer: A

Question No: 203 – (Topic 2)

Which attribute is not part of the BGP extended ecommunity when a PE creates a.VPN- IPv4 route while running OSPF between PE-CE?

  1. MED

  2. OSPF network type

  3. OSPF domain identifier

  4. OSPF route type

  5. OSPF router id

Answer: B

Question No: 204 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each multicast protocol from the left onto the matching description on the right. Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 205 – (Topic 2)

Which statement is true about IGMP?

  1. Multicast source send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.

  2. Multicast receivers send IGMP message to signal their interest traffic multicast groups.

  3. IGMP message are encapsulated in PIM register message and send to the RP.

  4. Multicast receivers send IGMP message to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP message to the RP.

Answer: B

Question No: 206 – (Topic 2)

163 QUESTIN TEXT IS NOT AVAILABLEwhich three statements about EIGRP and BFD are true ? (choose three)

  1. BFD is independent of the routing protocol,so it can be used as a generic failure detection mechanism for EIGRP.

  2. Some parts of BFD can be distributed to the data plane,so it can be less CPU-intensive than reduced timers, which exist wholly at the control plane.

  3. Reduced EIGRP timers have an absolut minimum detection timer of 1-2 seconds; BFD can provide sub-second failure detection

  4. BFD is tied to specific routing protocols and can be used for generic fault detection for the OSPF,EIGRP and BGP routing protocol

  5. BFD is dependent on the EIGRP routing protocol,so it can be used as a specific failure detection mechanism

  6. BFD resides on the control plane,so it is less CPU-intensive than if it resided on the date plane

Answer: A,B,C

Question No: 207 – (Topic 2)

How does an IPv6 host automatically gen猫rate a global address?

  1. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixs contained in Router Advertisement messages

  2. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixs contained in Router Advertisement messages

  3. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixs contained in Router Solicitation

    messag s

  4. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixs contained in Router Solicitation messages

Answer: B Explanation: QUESTIO.N 7

Which statement about the feasible distance in EIGRP is true?

  1. It is metric that is support by the best next hop toward the destination

  2. It is the maximum metric that should feasibly be considered for installation in the RIB C.It is the smallest metric toward the destination enc#39;OuntereD… … time the destination went from Active to Passive state

D.It is the maximum metric possible based on the maximum hop count that is allowed Answer: C

Question No: 208 – (Topic 2)

Which two options are benefits of Metro Ethernet?(Choose two.)

  1. It supports CHAP authentication.

  2. It includes a comprehensive framing mechanism.

  3. It integrates seamlessly throughout the enterprise.

  4. It can negate link parameters such as frame speed

  5. It provides lower cost per-port than other WAN technologies

Answer: C,E

Question No: 209 – (Topic 2)

Which option is the default LACP load-balancing algorithm for IP traffic on Layer 3?

  1. the source and destination IP address

  2. the source IP port

  3. the source and destination MAC address

  4. the destination port

  5. the destination IP port

Answer: A

Question No: 210 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 and R2 cannot establish an OSPF neighbor relationshipwhich two action can you take to (Choose two)

  1. Configuration PPP authentication under the R2 Gigabitethemet 0/1 interface

  2. Change the ip local pool command on R2 to ip local pool pooh 192 168 1 2 192 168 15

  3. Configuration R1 to send the username and password on the Dialer 1 interface

  4. Change the PPP authentication to CHAP authentication

  5. Configure PPP encapsulation under the R1 virtual-tempi at interface

Answer: C,E

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 191 – (Topic 2)

which statement about NAT64 is true?

  1. It uses one-to- one mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses

  2. It re quires static address mapping between 1Pv6 addresses and 1pv4 addresses

  3. It can be used to translate an IPv6 network to another J Pv6 network

  4. It can be configured for stateless and stateful transtation

Answer: D

Question No: 192 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each extended ping IP header option from the left onto quot;the corresponding description on the right

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 193 – (Topic 2)

n an STP domain. Which two topology are true a nonroot switch, when it reveives a configuration BPDU from the root bridge with the TC bit set? (Choose two)

  1. It does not recalculate the STP topology upon receiving change notification from the root switch.

  2. It sets the MAC table aging time to max_age time.

  3. It recalculates the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.

  4. It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time.

Answer: A,D

Question No: 194 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is connected to two MST domains for the first time. The error is observed on

Switch A %SPANTREE-2-PVSTIM_FAIL: Blocking designated port Fa0/1: Inconsistent superior PVST BPDU received onVLAN 10

How can this error be resolved?

  1. Map VLAN 10 to instance 0 in all MST regions.

  2. Remove the 1ST root form MST Region 2

  3. Configure PVST to allow MST Region 1 to be root for VLAN 10

  4. Map VLAN 10 into an appropriate instance on switch A

Answer: C

Question No: 195 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two)

  1. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF eBGP and iBGP routes are advertised.

  2. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is set automatically.

  3. When EIGRP traffic is redistributed into BGP, a default metric is required.

  4. When BGP traffic is redistribute into OSPF the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined.

  5. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into IGP if the routes are in the routing table.

  6. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP internal and external routes are redistributed.

Answer: B,D

Question No: 196 – (Topic 2)

You are implementing new addressing with EIGRP routing and must secondary address. Which are from the routing tablE.Which action is the most efficient solution to the problem?

  1. Disable split-horizon inside the EIGRP process on the router with the secondary addresses

  2. Use a different routing protocol and redistribute the routes between EIGRP and the new protocol.

  3. Disable split-horizon on the interface with secondary address.

  4. Add additional router interface and move the secondary addresses to the new interface.

Answer: C

Question No: 197 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each NAT64 description from the left onto the corresponding NAT64 type on the right. Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 198 – (Topic 2)

Which measure does IS-IS use to avoid sending traffic with a wrong MTU configuration?

  1. MTU value is communicated in IS-IS Sequence Number PDUs (SNP), and IS-IS adjacency is not established if an MTU mismatch is detected.

  2. IS-IS uses does not protect from MTU mismatch.

  3. IS-IS uses padding of hello packets to full MTU.

  4. IS-IS uses path MTU discovery as specified in RFC 1063.

Answer: C

Question No: 199 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two)

  1. It creates summary routes and injects them into EIGRP

  2. It prevent 172.16.0.0/16 from being distributed into EIGRP

  3. It allows a default route to be distributed into EIGRP

  4. It prevent a default route to being distributed into EIGRP

  5. It allows 172.16.0.0/16 and larger students to be distributed into EIGRP

  6. It allow 172.16.0.0/16 to be distributed into EIGRP

Answer: C,F

Question No: 200 – (Topic 2)

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

  1. Cisco Express Forwarding use a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching

    decisions.

  2. The FIB is used to population the Cisco Express Forwarding table.

  3. There can be only FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices.

  4. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarding to be route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB

Answer: A

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 181 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTN 47

How is a targeted LDP session different from a standard LOP session? A.Targeted LDP is used only for neighbors on different segments.

B.Targeted LDP requires SDP to be enabled. C.Targeted LDP requires RSVP to be enabled.

D. Targeted LDP uses unicast hello messages to peer with other devices Answer: C

Question No: 182 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop the NETCNF layers on the left onto their appropriate description on the right.

Select add Place:

Answer:

Question No: 183 – (Topic 2)

Which extended ping IP header option allows you to specify one or more hops over which the packets will travel without specifying the full path?

  1. verbose

  2. loose

  3. strict

  4. record

Answer: A

Question No: 184 – (Topic 2)

Which cache aggregagation scheme is supported by NetFlow ToS-based router aggregation?

  1. destination prefix

  2. AS

  3. protocol port

  4. prefix-port

Answer: D

Question No: 185 – (Topic 2)

With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

  1. TCP

  2. SNMP

  3. UDP

  4. XMPP

Answer: C

Question No: 186 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each STP port role on the left to the matching statement on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 187 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about the NHRP network ID is true ?

  1. It is sent from the hub to the spoke to identify the hub as a member of the same NHRP domain

  2. It is sent from the spoke to the hub to identify the spoke as member of the same NHRP domain

  3. It is locally significant ID used to define the NHRP domain for an interface.

  4. It is sent between spokes to identify the spokes as members of the same as NHRP domain.

Answer: C

Question No: 188 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which BGP feature is being used?

  1. graceful shutdown

  2. graceful restart

  3. PIC

  4. fast session deactivation

Answer: D

Question No: 189 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements are true about an EPL? (Choose two.)

  1. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of NNls

  2. It allows for service multiplexing.

  3. It has a high degree of transparency.

  4. The EPL service is also referred to as E-line

Answer: C,D

Question No: 190 – (Topic 2)

What are the two variants of NTPv4? (Choose two.)

  1. client/server

  2. broadcast

  3. multicast

  4. asymmetric

  5. unicast

Answer: A,B

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 171 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each description from the left into the matching protocol category on th猫 right.

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 172 – (Topic 2)

Which three statements are true about the spanning-tree loop guard feature? (脟hoose three.. )

  1. Loop guard affects UplinkFast operation.

  2. Loop guard can be enabled on PortFast ports

  3. Loop guard operation is not affected by the spanning-tree timers.

  4. Loop guard must be enabled on point-to-point link only

  5. Loop guard 莽annot be enabled on a switch that also has root guard en谩bled.

  6. Loop guard can detect a unidirectional link in the same way as UDLD

Answer: C,D,E

Question No: 173 – (Topic 2)

Which mechanism does GET VPN use to preseNeIP header information?

  1. MPLS

  2. IPsec transpo mode

  3. GRE

  4. IPsec tunnel mode

Answer: D

Question No: 174 – (Topic 2)

Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a client? (Choose three)

  1. Reject-Access

  2. Access-Accept

  3. Access-Reject

  4. Accept-confirmed

  5. Reject-Challenge

  6. Access-Challenge

Answer: B,C,F

Question No: 175 – (Topic 2)

Which two options are reasons to manipulate the delay metric instead of the bandwidth metric for EIGRP routing ? (Choose two)

  1. because manipulating the bandwidth metric can also affect QoS.

  2. because changes to the delay metric are propagated to all neighbors on a segment.

  3. because the delay metric provides better handling for busty traffic.

  4. because manipulating the bandwidth affects only a particular path.

Answer: A,B

Question No: 176 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about Type-4 LSA in OSPFv2 is true?

  1. It is present only in the backbone area

  2. It is generated by each ABR and forwarded in non-stub areas.

  3. It is forwarded in NSSA areas.

  4. It is generated by the ASBR and forwarded throughout the wholeOSPF domain.

Answer: B

Question No: 177 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP

server?

  1. R2

  2. The NTP server at 10.3.3.3

  3. The NTP server at 10.4.4.4

  4. The NTP server with the lowest stratum number

Answer: D

Question No: 178 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true?(choose two)

  1. The priority queue is disabled

  2. Queue 1 is allocated 4 percent of the availabel bandwdith and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth

  3. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of theailable bandwidth

  4. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2

  5. Queue 1 is .a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth

  6. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1

Answer: A,D

Question No: 179 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24?(Choose two)

  1. The prfix is in policyand Cisco PfR rerouted the.traffic#39; via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event

  2. The prfix is in policyand Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy

  3. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active throughput IP SLA proble mode only

  4. Cisco PfR is monitoring the pr fix via monitorwhich provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements /

  5. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow m貌de only

Answer: B,D

Question No: 180 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)

  1. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.

  2. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.

  3. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.

  4. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.

  5. Its application and protocols use address 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255.

Answer: B,D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 161-170

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 161 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop each IP traffic plane-packet type from left onto its description on the right Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 162 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Select and Place:

Answer:

Question No: 163 – (Topic 2)

Which type of ACL can be applied only to Layer 2 ports?

  1. portACLs

  2. standard ACLs

  3. reflexive ACLs

  4. dynamic ACLs

  5. VLANACLs

Answer: A

Question No: 164 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag each IS-IS command on the left to its effect on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 165 – (Topic 2)

Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(Choose two]

  1. OSPF

  2. ISSU

  3. FTP

  4. BGP

  5. Telnet

  6. DTP

Answer: C,E

Question No: 166 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

You must complete the configuration on R1 so that a maximum of three links can amp;e used and fragmentation is supported.

You must complete the configuration on R1 so that a maximum of three links can be used and fragmentation is supported.

Which additional configuration accomplishes this task?

  1. interface Multilink19

    ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

    ppp multilink

    ppp multilink group 19

    ppp multilink links minimum 1 ppp multilink links maximum 3 ppp multilink interleave

  2. interface Multilink19

    ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

    ppp multilink

    ppp multilink group 19

    ppp multilink links maximum 3 ppp multilink fragment delay 20

  3. interface Multilink19

    ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

    ppp multilink

    ppp multilink group 19

    ppp multilink links maximum 3 ppp multilink fragment delay 20 ppp multilink interleave

  4. interface Multilink19

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ppp multilink

ppp multilink group 19

ppp multilink links maximum 3 ppp multilink interleave

Answer: A Explanation:

The 鈥減pp multilink interleave鈥?command is needed to enable link fragmentation and Interleaving (LFI). The Cisco IOS Link Fragmentation and Interleaving (LFI) feature uses Multilink PPP (MLP). MLP provides a method of splitting, recombining, and sequencing datagrams across multiple logical data links. MLP allows packets to be fragmented and the fragments to be sent at the same time over multiple point-to-point links to the same remote address.

ppp multilink links maximum

To limit the maximum number of links that Multilink PPP (MLP) can dial for dynamic

allocation, use the ppp multilink links maximum command in interface configuration mode.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcflfi.html

Question No: 167 – (Topic 2)

Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? {Choose two)

  1. Stuck-in-active conditions are solves faster.

  2. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state.

  3. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network.

  4. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 168 – (Topic 2)

Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?

  1. default-information originate

  2. redistribute static subnets

  3. redistribute static metric 1 subnets

  4. redistribute static

Answer: A

Question No: 169 – (Topic 2)

Which three options must be configured when deploying OSPFv3 for authentication? (Choose three)

  1. encryption algorithm

  2. authentication key

  3. IPsec transform-set

  4. authentication method

  5. encryption key

  6. crypto map

  7. IPsec peer

  8. Security parameter index

Answer: B,D,H

Question No: 170 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about VSS are true? (Choose two.)

  1. It requires physical switches to be collocated.

  2. It is dependent on spanning-tree.

  3. It requires three IP addresses per ULAN.

  4. Each VSS has a single management IP address

  5. It can eliminate the need for HSRP.

Answer: D,E

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 151-160

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 151 – (Topic 2)

Which statement about NAT64 is true?

  1. It can be used to translate an IPv6 network to another IPv6 network.

  2. It uses one-to-one mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.

  3. It requires static address mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.

  4. It can be configured for stateless and stateful translation.

Answer: D

Question No: 152 – (Topic 2)

Which two authentication mechanisms are supported by SNMPv3 ?{Choose two)

  1. SHA

  2. username without password

  3. username and password

  4. DES

  5. a community string

  6. 265-bit AES

Answer: A,C

Question No: 153 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about the STP dispute function are true? (Choose two)

  1. It compares the downstream port states reported in received BPDUs.

  2. The upstream switch uses received BPDUs to detect unidirectional link failures.

  3. The downstream switch uses received BPDUs to detect unidirectional link failures.

  4. When a designated port detects a conflict, it changes its role by reverting to a discarding state

Answer: A,B

Question No: 154 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about the command distance bgp 90 60 120 are true?(Choose two)

  1. The local distance it sets may conflict with the RIP administrative distan莽e

  2. Implementing the command is a Cisco best practice

  3. The internal distance it sets is preferred over the external distance

  4. The internal distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance

  5. The local distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance

  6. The external distance it sets is preterred over the internal distance

Answer: A,C

Question No: 155 – (Topic 2)

What command can you enter to enable client autoconfiguration over an ISATAP tunnel?

  1. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

  2. no ipv6 nd ra suppress

  3. ipv6 nd ra suppress

  4. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6rd

Answer: B

Question No: 156 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements aretrue about control plane policing?(Choose two)

  1. Access list that are used in po|1cies for control plane policing must not use the l g keyword

  2. The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policies for control plane policing

  3. Packets denied by an explicit access control list entry do not progress to the next class

    in control plane policing

  4. Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor

Answer: A,C

Question No: 157 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Select and Place the best match.

Answer:

Question No: 158 – (Topic 2)

Refer to the exhibit.

With BGP always-compare-med enabled, which BGP entry is installed in the RIB?

  1. Entry 1 because it was installed first (oldest) in the BGP table.

  2. Entry 1 because it has the best MED of the external routes.

  3. Entry 2 because it has the lowest router ID.

  4. Entry 3 because it has the lowest MED.

Answer: D

Question No: 159 – (Topic 2)

Which two message types allow PIM snooping to forward multicast traffic? (Choose two)

  1. membership query messages

  2. leave messages

  3. bidirectional PIM DF election messages

  4. Hello messages

Answer: C,D

Question No: 160 – (Topic 2)

Which marking field is used only as an internal marking within a router?

  1. QOS Group

  2. Discard Eligiblity

  3. IP Precedence

  4. MPLS Experimental

  5. CoS

Answer: A

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 141-150

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 141 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

  1. R1 is performing mutual redistribution,but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2.

  2. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks.

  3. R3 and R1 have the same router 1

  4. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP.

  5. R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch.

  6. R2 is configured to offset OSPF routes with a metric of 16.

  7. R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RIP.

Answer: B,D,E

Question No: 142 – (Topic 1)

Which tunneling method can transmit IPv6 traffic over an MPLS infrastructure?

  1. 6RD

  2. ISATAP

  3. 6to4

  4. 6PE

Answer: D

Question No: 143 – (Topic 1)

Which statement is true about trunking?

  1. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL

  2. Cisco switches that run PVST do not transmit BPDUS on nonnative VLANs when using a

  3. dot1q trunk.

  4. DTP os a point-to-point protocol.

  5. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk,management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed

in that VLAN.

Answer: C

Question No: 144 – (Topic 1)

Which three factors does Cisco PFR use to calculate the best exit path?(Choose three)

  1. Reachability

  2. Delay

  3. Quality of service

  4. Packet size

  5. Adminstrative distance

  6. Loss

Answer: A,B,F

Topic 2, Pool B

Question No: 145 – (Topic 2)

Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true ?(Choose two)

  1. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.

  2. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.

  3. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.

  4. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.

Answer: A,B

Question No: 146 – (Topic 2)

Which two items must be confined to caputure packet data with the Embedded Packet Caputure feature ? (Choose two)

  1. the capture point

  2. the capture buffer

  3. the coputure file export location

  4. the caputure filter

  5. the capture rate

  6. the buffer memory size

Answer: A,B

Question No: 147 – (Topic 2)

Which two items must be confined to caputure packet data with the Embedded Packet Caputure feature ? (Choose two)

  1. the capture point

  2. the capture buffer

  3. the coputure file export location

  4. the caputure filter

  5. the capture rate

  6. the buffer memory size

Answer: A,B

Question No: 148 – (Topic 2)

Which two are best practices when configuring VLAN and switch port ?{Choose two)

  1. Assign an unused VLAN to all unsed ports.

  2. Always use MST to ensure a loop-free topology.

  3. Use a dedicated native VLAN ID for all trunk ports.

  4. Use VLAN1 as the network management VLAN

  5. Set the default port status to Enable.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 149 DRAG DROP – (Topic 2)

Drag and drop the NAT operations on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 150 – (Topic 2)

Which trunking configuration between two Cisco switches can cause a security risk?

  1. configuring incorrect channel-groups on the switches.

  2. disabling DTP on the trunk ports.

  3. configuring different trunk modes on the switches.

  4. configuring different native VLANs on the switches.

  5. configuring mismatched VLANs on the trunk.

Answer: D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 131-140

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 131 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the

tunnel?(choose two)

  1. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under

    thepseudowire-class R1toR2.

  2. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.

  3. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.

  4. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.

  5. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 132 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.What are two effects of the given configurationChoose two

  1. Track objiect 100 goes down if Ethernet1/0 goes down.

  2. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 30.

  3. Track object 100 goes down if Ethernet1/2 goes down.

  4. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 40.

  5. Track object 100 stays up as long as both Ethernet1/0 and Ethernet1/1 are up.

  6. Track object 100 goes down if all three interfaces go down.

Answer: E,F

Question No: 133 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of ICMPv6 packet is shownin the output?

  1. Neighbor advertisement

  2. Time exceeded

  3. Neighbor soliciation

  4. Router advertisement

  5. Router discovery

Answer: C

Question No: 134 – (Topic 1)

Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? {Choose two)

  1. It fully supports multicast traffic.

  2. It allow the administrator to use different autonomous system number per EIGRP domain.

  3. It allow EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.

  4. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.

  5. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.

  6. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.

Answer: C,D

Question No: 135 – (Topic 1)

Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)

  1. ERMS

  2. EPL

  3. ERS

  4. MPLS

  5. EMS

  6. EWS

Answer: B,E,F

Question No: 136 – (Topic 1)

What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?(Choose two)

  1. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown

  2. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown

  3. router(config-router)# shutdown

  4. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown

  5. router(config)# ip notify

Answer: B,C

Question No: 137 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 138 – (Topic 1)

Which value does VPLS use to make forwarding decision?

  1. Destination MAC of the the Ethernet

  2. Destination IP address of the packet

  3. Source MAC of the Ethernet frame

  4. Source IP address of the packet

Answer: A

Question No: 139 – (Topic 1)

Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?

  1. area 0 – area 2-MPLS VPN superbackbone – area 1

  2. area 2 – area 0 MPLS VPN backbone – area 1

  3. area 1 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 2

  4. area I – area 0 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 0 – area 2

  5. area 1-MPLS VPN backbone-area 1

Answer: A

Question No: 140 – (Topic 1)

If you configure EIGRP redistribution on a router without specifying metric values.how the

router respond?

  1. It assigns the lowest possible metrics

  2. It uses K Values to assign new metrics

  3. It uses the originating protocol metrics

  4. It fails to enter redistributed routes into the route table

Answer: D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 121-130

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 121 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 advertise 10.50.1.0/24 to R3 and R4 as shown.R1 is the primary path. Which path does traffic take from the data center to the file server?

  1. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to R1 to the file server.

  2. Traffic is load-balanced from R4 to R2 and R3. Traffic that is directed to R3 then continues to R1 to the file server. Traffic that is directed to R2 continues to the file server.

  3. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to the files server.

  4. All traffic travels from R4 to R3 to R1 to the file server.

Answer: A

Question No: 122 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 123 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Router A and B are the edge device at two different sites as shown. The two edge devices use public addresses on their WAN interfaces, and both sites use RFC1918 for all

other addresses.if routers A and B have established an IPsec tunnel, which statement about the

network environment must be true?

  1. Router A1 and Router b1 are using NAT translation to allow private-address traffic to traverse the tunnel.

  2. The tunnel terminates on the ISP routers.

  3. Each site is capable of routing private addressing over the IPsec tunnel.

  4. Router A and router B are using BGP to share routes between the two sites.

Answer: C

Question No: 124 – (Topic 1)

Refer to exhibit.

Which AS paths are matched by this access list?

  1. the directly attached AS 65596 and any

  2. the origin AS 64496 only

  3. the origin AS 64996 and any ASs after AS 64496

  4. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496

Answer: D

Question No: 125 – (Topic 1)

Which statement about the OSPF Loop-Free Alternate feature is true?

  1. It is supported when traffic can be redirected to a primary neighbor

  2. It is supported on routers that that are configured with virtual links

  3. It is supported in VRF OSPF instances.

  4. It is supported when a traffic engineering tunnel interface is protected

Answer: C

Question No: 126 – (Topic 1)

In a Cisco ACL environment .which option best describes quot;contractsquot;?

  1. named group of related endpoints

  2. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups

  3. to determine endpoint group membership status

  4. a layer 3 forwarding domain

Answer: B

Question No: 127 – (Topic 1)

When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?

  1. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.

  2. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.

  3. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.

  4. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.

Answer: C

Question No: 128 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

When R2 attempted to copy a file the TFTP server, it received this error messagE. When action can you take to correct the problem?

  1. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R2

  2. configure the ip tftp source-interface FaO/1 command on R1

  3. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on R2

  4. configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopbackO command on RI

  5. Change the access-list configuration on R1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255.

Answer: C

Question No: 129 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)

  1. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.

  2. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.

  3. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.

  4. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.

  5. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 130 – (Topic 1)

Which description of Infrastructure as a Service is true?

  1. a cloud service that delivers on-demand resources like networking and storage.

  2. a cloud service that delivers on-demand internet connection between sites

  3. a cloud service that delivers on-demand software services on a subscription

  4. a cloud service that delivers on-demand internet connection between sites

Answer: A

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 111-120

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 111 – (Topic 1)

Which statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true?(Choose two)

  1. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client.

  2. It specifies a hardware address for the client.

  3. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP requests.

  4. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP request.

  5. It requires that you specify the hardware protocol.

Answer: A,D

Question No: 112 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the 192.168.23.0/24 prefix are true?(Choose two.)

  1. Router 192.168.45.4 cannot act as a feasible successor.

  2. Router 192.168.35.3 is the only successor.

  3. Only router 192.168.45.4 is a feasible successor.

  4. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are successors.

  5. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are feasible successors.

  6. Only router 192.168.35.3 is a feasible successor.

Answer: A,B

Question No: 113 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true?(Choose two)

  1. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 110.

  2. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP,it has a default metric of 1.

  3. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF,it has a default metric of 1.

  4. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS,it has a default metric of 115.

  5. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2,it has a default metric of 20.

Answer: C,E

Question No: 114 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface GigabitEthernet0/0

  1. Only traffic matching access-list streaming

  2. No traffic gets set to AF41

  3. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming

  4. Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms

Answer: C

Question No: 115 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?

A. 2001:12::/64

B. 2001:112::/64,2001:12::1/64 C. 2001:112::/64,2001:12:1/128 D. 2001:12::1/128

Answer: D

Question No: 116 – (Topic 1)

Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP?

  1. no synchronization

  2. redistribute protocol process-number

  3. bgp redistribute-internal

  4. synchronization

Answer: C

Question No: 117 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two)

  1. The service provider provisions CE devices.

  2. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches.

  3. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses.

  4. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN.

  5. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN.

  6. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors.

Answer: C,E

Question No: 118 – (Topic 1)

What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?

  1. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.

  2. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages.

  3. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers.

  4. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages.

  5. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default.

Answer: C,E

Question No: 119 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)

  1. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections

  2. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.

  3. It can cause TCP connections to close.

  4. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.

  5. It is uncommon in large networks.

Answer: B,D

Question No: 120 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about BGP confederation architecture are true?Choose two

  1. The intraconfederation EBGP default TTL value between sub-ASes is 255.

  2. The intraconfederation EBGP default TTL value between sub-ASes is 1.

  3. The ASN of a confederation is exclueded from the AS_PATH path length calculation.

  4. The AS_SET and AS_SEQ components help prevent loops inside a sub-AS.

  5. IBGP sessions inside a sub-AS have a default TTL of 1.

Answer: B,C

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 101-110

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 101 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)

  1. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

  2. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.

  3. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

  4. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.

  5. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

Answer: A,B

Question No: 102 – (Topic 1)

Which condition must be satisfied before a Cisco router running RIP can poison a route ?

  1. The invalid timer must expire.

  2. The hold down timer must expire.

  3. The flush timer must expire.

  4. The flush timer must reach 240 seconds.

  5. The metric must equal! 6.

Answer: A

Question No: 103 – (Topic 1)

Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service

  1. IntServ with RSVP

  2. DiffServ

  3. Q-in-Q

  4. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command

  5. HCBWFQ

Answer: B

Question No: 104 – (Topic 1)

Which statement about passive interfaces is true?

  1. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units

  2. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.

  3. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.

  4. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.

Answer: A

Question No: 105 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)

  1. It is valid only on NBMA networks.

  2. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.

  3. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.

  4. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor

  5. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.

  6. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.

Answer: B,C

Question No: 106 – (Topic 1)

Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?

  1. Space-dese mode

  2. Bidirectional mode

  3. Deuce mode

  4. Sparse mode

Answer: B

Question No: 107 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

If you apply this configuration to a device on your network, which class map cannot match traffic?

  1. CM-EXAMPLE-3

  2. CM-EXAMPLE-4

  3. CM-EXAMPLE-1

  4. CM-EXAMPLE-5

  5. CM-EXAMPLE-2

Answer: A

Question No: 108 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about RIPng are true? (Choose two)

  1. IPv6 can support as many as 8 equal-cost routes.

  2. IPv6 can support as many as 32 equal-cost routes.

  3. A route with a metric of 15 is advertised as unreachable.

  4. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface.

  5. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise.

Answer: D,E

Question No: 109 – (Topic 1)

Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization?(choose two)

  1. Xen

  2. Docker

  3. KVM

  4. OpenStack

  5. DevStack

Answer: A,C

Question No: 110 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can you draw from this putput?(Choose two)

  1. The packet was source-routed.

  2. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and

  3. from the device at 10.9.132.254

  4. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at

E. 10.9.132.254

  1. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and

  2. from the device at 10.9.132.254

  3. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an ARP entry for the device at 10.9.132.254.

Answer: B,C

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 91-100

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 91 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about BIDIR-PIM are true? (Choose two)

  1. It uses implicit join messages to signal membership.

  2. It is designed to support one-to-many applications within a PIM domain.

  3. It uses (*,G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.

  4. It uses a designated forwarder to maintain a loop-free SPT.

  5. Traffic can be passed downstream from the shared tree toward the RP.

Answer: C,E

Question No: 92 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 93 – (Topic 1)

Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?

  1. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.

  2. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

  3. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.

  4. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.

  5. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined

condition is met.

Answer: E

Question No: 94 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)

  1. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.

  2. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.

  3. NHRP disables multicast

  4. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.

  5. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.

Answer: A,B

Question No: 95 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network ?

  1. 6to4 tunnel

  2. NAT-PT

  3. ISATAP tunnel

  4. dual stack

Answer: B

Question No: 96 – (Topic 1)

Which protocol allows connections made by an NBMA network to dynamically learn connected address

  1. PPP

  2. NHRP

  3. HDLC

  4. POP

Answer: B

Question No: 97 – (Topic 1)

Which option is the common primary use case for tools such as Puppet.Chef.Ansible.and Salt?

  1. network function visualization

  2. network orchestration

  3. Configuration management

  4. Policy assurance

Answer: C

Question No: 98 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true?

  1. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP.

  2. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command.

  3. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS.

  4. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only

  5. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles.

Answer: B,C

Question No: 99 – (Topic 1)

What is the main function of VRF-lite?

  1. To segreagate multiple routing tables on a single device.

  2. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes.

  3. To allow device to use lables to make layer 2 path decisions.

  4. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone.

Answer: A

Question No: 100 – (Topic 1)

Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the interval is set?

  1. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to

    slowdown its LSA packet updates.

  2. The LSA is added to the OSPF database.

  3. The LSA is ignored.

  4. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet

Updates.

Answer: C

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 81-90

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 81 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)

  1. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60

  2. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.

  3. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.

  4. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.

  5. It configure the router as the rendezvous point

Answer: B,E

Question No: 82 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

What conclusion can you draw from the given ping output?

  1. The ping operation sent packets ranging from 505 to 1500 bytes in size.

  2. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation.

  3. The packet life was exceeded in 5 percent of the operations.

  4. The Verbose option was set in the IP header.

Answer: B

Question No: 83 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which router on the given network generates the IS-IS pseudonode?

  1. R4

  2. R2

  3. R1

  4. R3

Answer: A

Question No: 84 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about the various types of DevOps tools are true?(Choose two.)

  1. Chef and Puppet are much more attuned to the needs of system administrators.

  2. Puppet and Chef are written in Python . Python skills are a must to operate these two.

  3. Salt cannot communicate with clients through general SSH. it use minions client agents only.

  4. Puppet requires the installation of a master (server) and agents (clients) architecture for configuring systems.

  5. Ansible does not require agent node installation and users SSH for performing all tasks.

Answer: D,E

Question No: 85 – (Topic 1)

Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)

  1. Frame Relay

  2. ATM

  3. AToM

  4. L2TPv3

Answer: C,D

Question No: 86 – (Topic 1)

Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)

  1. the process ID

  2. the hello interval

  3. the subnet mask

  4. authentication

  5. the router ID

  6. the OSPF interface priority

Answer: B,C,D

Question No: 87 – (Topic 1)

Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?

  1. ip pim autorp listener

  2. ip pim send-rp-announce

  3. ip pim rp-candidate

  4. ip pim rp-address

  5. ip pim send-rp- discovery

Answer: C

Question No: 88 – (Topic 1)

Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security association is established?

  1. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association

  2. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association

  3. The Proof of Possession(POP)

  4. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange

  5. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange

Answer: A

Question No: 89 – (Topic 1)

which two statements about IP SLAs are true? {Choose two)

  1. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.

  2. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip

  3. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB

  4. Data can be collected with a physical probe.

  5. They are layer 2 transport independent.

Answer: B,E

Question No: 90 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)

  1. It is highly scalable as networks grow.

  2. It provides better security than dynamic routing.

  3. It reduces configuration errors.

  4. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.

  5. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.

Answer: B,D

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[Free] 2017(Aug) itexamfox Examcollection Cisco 400-101 Dumps with VCE and PDF 71-80

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 71 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

How can you configure this network this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?

  1. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers.

  2. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.

  3. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers.

  4. Configure OTP on the CE routers.

Answer: D

Question No: 72 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

When R2 attempted to copy a file from the TFTP server, it received this error message. Which action can you take to correct the problem?

  1. Configure the iptftp source-interface Loopback0 command on R1.

  2. Configure the iptftp source-interface Loopback0 command on R2.

  3. Configure the iptftp source-interface Fa0/1 command on R2.

  4. Change the access-list configuration on R1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255

  5. Configure the iptftp source-interface Fa0/1 command on R1.

Answer: B

Question No: 73 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 74 – (Topic 1)

Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a

packet that the path is sub-optimal?

  1. Ipnhrp cost 65535

  2. Ipnhrp redirect

  3. Ipnhrp set-unique-bit

  4. Ipnhrp record

  5. Ipnhrp shortcut

Answer: B

Question No: 75 – (Topic 1)

Refer To the exhibit.

When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?

  1. on the EO/0 interface on R1

  2. on the outside interface

  3. in the forwarding engine

  4. in the tunnel

  5. within the crypto map

  6. on the EO/1 interface on R2

Answer: A

Question No: 76 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 77 – (Topic 1)

Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP?

  1. IGP

  2. EGP

  3. External

  4. Incomplete

  5. Unknown

Answer: D

Question No: 78 – (Topic 1)

In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note ? (Choose two)

  1. Neutron server plugin

  2. Neutron DHCP agent

  3. Neutron layer 2 agent

  4. Identify Service

  5. Neutron Layer 3 agent

Answer: A,D

Question No: 79 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

If interface FastEthernetO/1 goes down,how does router R5 respond?

  1. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24.

  2. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24

  3. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24

  4. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24

Answer: A

Question No: 80 – (Topic 1)

Which interior gateway protocol is based on open standards, uses a shortest-path first algorithm , provides native protocols, and operates at the data link layer?

  1. IS-IS

  2. EIGRP

  3. BGP

  4. OSPF

Answer: A

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 61 – (Topic 1)

Which feature must be enabled so that an IS-IS single topology can support IPv6 traffic?

  1. extended metrics

  2. adjacency checking

  3. new-style TLVs only

  4. both new-and old-style TLVs

  5. old-style TLVs only

Answer: C

Question No: 62 – (Topic 1)

Under which two circumstances is IPsec transport mode appropriate ? (Choose two)

  1. When both hosts are behind IPsec peers.

  2. When the hosts are transmitting router management traffic.

  3. When only one host is behind an IPsec peer.

  4. When only IP header encryption is needed.

  5. When IPsec peers are the source and the destination of the traffic.

  6. When only IP header authentication is needed.

Answer: B,E

Question No: 63 – (Topic 1)

Which IPv6 migration method allows IPv4-only devices to communicate with IPv6-only devices?

  1. Dual stack

  2. NAT64

  3. ISATAP tunnel

  4. GRE tunnel

Answer: B

Question No: 64 – (Topic 1)

Exhibit:

Which option describes the meaning of this console message?

  1. An EIGRP hold timer has expired.

  2. FastEthernetO/O has interface errors.

  3. An EIGRP process has been shut down.

  4. An interface has gone down.

Answer: C

Question No: 65 – (Topic 1)

Which two options are potential impacts of microbursts? (Choose two.)

  1. invalid checksum

  2. tail drops

  3. packet loss

  4. unicast flooding

  5. asymmetric routing

  6. unnecessary broadcast traffic

Answer: B,C

Question No: 66 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit .

If R1 generated this response to the show debug command, which statement about its debug its debug output is true?

  1. As soon as interface Fa0/0 becomes active, it generate debug output because one condition has been met.

  2. When debug output is generated, only the user Cisco is permitted to view it.

  3. R1 generates debug output as soon as IP address 192.168.0.0 is applied to interface Fa0/0.

  4. RI generates debug output as soon as all three conditions are met.

Answer: A

Question No: 67 – (Topic 1)

Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?

  1. decision

  2. receive

  3. forward

  4. update

Answer: D

Question No: 68 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement describes how a router with this configuration treats packets if the devices at 172.16.12.5 and 192.168.3.2 are unreachable ?

  1. It routes the packet using the default routing table.

  2. It routers the packet into a loop and drops it when the TTL reaches zero.

  3. It drop the packet immediately.

  4. It sends an ICMP source quench message.

Answer: A

Question No: 69 – (Topic 1)

Which three statements about AToM are true?(Choose three)

  1. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router.

  2. It supports interworking for Frame Relay,PPP,andEthernet,but not ATM

  3. It requires MPLS between the PE routers

  4. The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnectcommand

  5. IP CEF should be disabled in the PE routers.

  6. The PE routers must share the same VC idenifier.

Answer: B,C,F

Question No: 70 – (Topic 1)

Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it

  1. a designated port

  2. an alternate port

  3. a blocked port

  4. a root port

Answer: A

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

Question No: 51 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring Router 1 and Routef2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.Which

two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Routei#39;2 to establish the tuimel?(choose two)

  1. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class RltoR2.

  2. An IP address must be confiaured on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.

  3. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.

  4. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.

  5. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.

Answer: A,C

Question No: 52 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this CoS mapping are true? (Choose two.)

  1. It maps the first queue and first threshold to CoS2 and CoS3 .

  2. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 2.

  3. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 3.

  4. It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold.

  5. It maps the second threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.

Answer: D,E

Question No: 53 – (Topic 1)

What is the default console authentication method on the Cisco routers ?

  1. Local

  2. EAPol

  3. open

  4. TACACS

  5. no authentication

  6. RADIUS

Answer: E

Question No: 54 – (Topic 1)

What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)

  1. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.

  2. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts

  3. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.

  4. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.

  5. t uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices

Answer: B,D

Question No: 55 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the output aretrue?(Choose two)

  1. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.

  2. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.

  3. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP.

  4. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP.

  5. BFD is active for BGP on RT1

Answer: B,E

Question No: 56 – (Topic 1)

What is the main difference between GETVPN and traditional IPsec encryption techniques?

  1. Only GETVPN uses three types ofencryption keys.

  2. Only GETVPN uses group SA.

  3. Only traditional IPsec uses ISAKMP forauthentication.

  4. Only traditional IPsec uses PSKs.

Answer: B

Question No: 57 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the priority order in which the attributes are preferred when determining the best path on the right.

Answer:

Question No: 58 – (Topic 1)

Refer to the exhibit. This network is undergoing a migration from PVST to MST. S1 is the MSTO root bridge and S2 is the MSTO secondary root. Which statement about traffic from S3 is true ?

  1. Interface GiO/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 unless it is configured for load balancing with PVST .

  2. Interface GiO/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated to MST.

  3. Interface GiO/1 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated to MST.

  4. Vlan traffic automatically load balances between GO/0 and GO/1 on S3 using migrated to MST

  5. PVST inherits the load-balancing configuration from MST.

Answer: C

Question No: 59 – (Topic 1)

Which two statements about MPLS label stack encoding are true?(Choose two)

  1. MPLS label are encoded in little-endian format.

  2. When an MPLS label stack undergoes the swap operation,it swaps the top and bottom labels.

  3. When a device forwards a labeled packet.it must copy the TTL of the incoming label to the

  4. outgoing label.

  5. The TTL is significant only on the top label

  6. When a device forwards a labeled packet,it must copy the TTL of the outgoing label to the

top label.4

Answer: C,D

Question No: 60 – (Topic 1)

Which Cisco IOS XE component provides separation between the control plane and the data plane?

  1. Common Management Enabling Technology

  2. Free and Open Source Software

  3. POSIX

  4. Forwarding and Feature Manager

Answer: D

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